Discussion Question

Today in class, we discussed how the shift from "manhood" to "masculinity" (p. 205) was partly a result of an economic downturn and that it resulted in the colonization and imperialism. Is this trend something that occurred once, or can you see correlations between economic downturns, increases in masculinity, and colonization in other (more modern times)? Did Huhndorf ignore other factors that seem necessary for this shift to masculinity and then imperialism?